*3:1 The term here is usually rendered ‘bishop’, but today a bishop is one who has authority over a number of other pastors/presbyters/elders, whereas in the New Testament these four terms evidently refer to a single office in the church.
†3:2 That is what the Text says, strictly speaking, emphasizing the quality—a man who has only one wife, but has a wandering eye, would not qualify. However, the term ‘woman’ can also mean ‘wife’, and because of the reference to children in verse four most versions render ‘wife’. The term “man” here refers exclusively to males; there is no room here for a female overseer.
‡3:3 Some 30% of the Greek manuscripts omit “not corrupt [financially]” (as in NIV, NASB, LB, TEV, etc.). Who wants to offend those with the means to make substantial contributions to the church coffers? So why talk about shady dealings? The omission is surely inferior.
§3:4 Presumably adults who have left the ‘nest’ are not in view here.
*3:6 Pride brought about Lucifer's downfall (Isaiah 14:13-14).
†3:7 When a pastor is well known and respected in a community, any attempt to discredit him through false accusations will probably fail; the people know it isn't true. On the other hand, a new arrival is an easy target.
‡3:8 An elder should not ‘drink’ (verse 3), while a deacon may, just not heavily! However, if he hopes to one day be an elder…
§3:11 That is what the Text says, just “women”—no article and no possessive pronoun. Because Paul returns to the deacons in verse 12, most versions take the reference here to be to their wives, but the grammatical construction of verse 11 is parallel to that of verse 8, which is parallel to verse 2. I take it that the grammar obliges us to see a third office in the congregation, one filled by women—deaconesses, or something of the sort. Counseling women can be dangerous for a man; certain matters are best handled by a mature, sanctified woman; if she has an official standing in the congregation, so much the better.
*3:13 They become natural candidates for the office of elder.
†3:15 My first impression would be that the truth should be sustaining the Church, not vice versa. But it is the Church that has the responsibility to promote and defend the truth in the society at large—in education, health, commerce, government, everywhere.
‡3:16 Instead of ‘God’, 1% of the Greek manuscripts (of objectively inferior quality) read ‘who’, and most modern versions follow this 1%. But ‘who’ is nonsensical (in the context), so most of them take evasive action: NEB and NASB have ‘he who’; Phillips has ‘the one’; NRSV, Jerusalem, TEV and NIV render ‘he’. Berkley actually has ‘who’! In the Greek Text the relative pronoun has no antecedent, so it is a grammatical ‘impossibility’, besides being a stupidity—what is so mysterious about someone being manifested in flesh? All human beings have bodies. In the absence of concrete evidence, the claim that this is a note lifted from a known hymn or poem becomes no more than a desperate attempt to ‘save’ a choice that besides being stupid is also perverse (because of the theological consequences). The pronoun can be accounted for as an easy transcriptional error, a simple copying mistake, so why not stay with the 98.5% (there are other variants)? “God was manifested in flesh”—now there you have a mystery! For a more detailed discussion, please see my book, The Identity of the New Testament Text IV, footnote 3, on pages 115-117.